Question
Download Solution PDFComprehension
Direction : Consider the following for the items that follow :
Let \(\rm I=\int_0^{\pi/2}\frac{f(x)}{g(x)}dx\), where f(x) = sin x and g(x) = sin x + cos x + 1
What is \(\rm \int_0^{\pi/2}\frac{d(x)}{g(x)}\) equal to
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFConcept:
Integration using Substitution:
- This method involves replacing a complex expression with a single variable to simplify integration.
- Useful for trigonometric integrals where identities and substitutions simplify the expression.
- Here, the identity used is:
- \( \sin x + \cos x = \frac{2\tan \frac{x}{2}}{1 + \tan^2 \frac{x}{2}} + \frac{1 - \tan^2 \frac{x}{2}}{1 + \tan^2 \frac{x}{2}} \)
- \( 1 + \tan \frac{x}{2} = t \Rightarrow \frac{1}{2} \sec^2 \frac{x}{2} dx = dt \)
- The integral is solved using limits transformation and properties of logarithmic integrals.
Calculation:
Given: \( g(x) = \sin x + \cos x + 1 \)
We evaluate \( \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{dx}{g(x)} = \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{1}{\sin x + \cos x + 1} dx \)
⇒ Apply Weierstrass substitution: \( \tan \frac{x}{2} = t \)
⇒ Use identity: \( \sin x + \cos x = \frac{2\tan \frac{x}{2}}{1 + \tan^2 \frac{x}{2}} + \frac{1 - \tan^2 \frac{x}{2}}{1 + \tan^2 \frac{x}{2}} \)
⇒ Simplify denominator:
\( \sin x + \cos x + 1 = \frac{2\tan \frac{x}{2} + 1 - \tan^2 \frac{x}{2} + 1 + \tan^2 \frac{x}{2}}{1 + \tan^2 \frac{x}{2}} = \frac{2(1 + \tan \frac{x}{2})}{1 + \tan^2 \frac{x}{2}} \)
⇒ \( \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{1}{2(1 + \tan \frac{x}{2})} \cdot \sec^2 \frac{x}{2} dx \)
Let \( 1 + \tan \frac{x}{2} = t \Rightarrow \frac{1}{2} \sec^2 \frac{x}{2} dx = dt \)
⇒ Limits change:
- \( x = 0 \Rightarrow t = 1 \)
- \( x = \frac{\pi}{2} \Rightarrow t = 2 \)
⇒ \( \int_{1}^{2} \frac{1}{t} dt = [\ln t]_{1}^{2} = \ln 2 - \ln 1 = \ln 2 \)
∴ The final answer is \( \ln 2 \)
Last updated on May 30, 2025
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