Psychology - UGC MCQ Quiz in मल्याळम - Objective Question with Answer for Psychology - UGC - സൗജന്യ PDF ഡൗൺലോഡ് ചെയ്യുക
Last updated on Mar 8, 2025
Latest Psychology - UGC MCQ Objective Questions
Top Psychology - UGC MCQ Objective Questions
Psychology - UGC Question 1:
Which of the following domains are assessed by Neuropsychological tests?
A. Language
B. Opinion
C. Memory
D. Executive Functioning
E. Reaction
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Psychology - UGC Question 1 Detailed Solution
The correct response is A, C and D only
Key Points
Neuropsychological tests are designed to assess various cognitive domains and brain functions. Here’s an explanation for each domain mentioned in the options:
- Language (A):Neuropsychological tests often assess language abilities, including receptive and expressive language skills, naming, comprehension, fluency, and understanding.
- Opinion (B):The opinion is not a cognitive domain typically assessed by neuropsychological tests. These tests are more focused on objective measures of cognitive function rather than subjective opinions.
- Memory (C):Memory is a crucial domain in neuropsychological assessments. Tests evaluate different types of memory, including short-term, long-term, working memory, visual memory, and verbal memory.
- Executive Functioning (D):Executive functioning encompasses higher-order cognitive processes such as planning, problem-solving, organizing, reasoning, task flexibility, and inhibition. These are commonly evaluated in neuropsychological testing.
- Reaction (E):Reaction time can be assessed as part of neuropsychological testing, particularly in attention and psychomotor speed tests. However, it is typically not considered a primary cognitive domain like memory or language.
Psychology - UGC Question 2:
Class is to the _________ property of measurement as time is to the _________ property of measurement.
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Psychology - UGC Question 2 Detailed Solution
The correct option is '3) Identity, absolute zero'.
Key Points
- Class is to the Identity property of measurement as time is to the absolute zero property of measurement.
- This statement is true
- In measurement theory, the identity property refers to the categorization or classification of items. For example, assigning students to different classes based on certain characteristics.
- Time, on the other hand, is measured with an absolute zero point, which is a fundamental aspect of interval and ratio scales of measurement.
- Explanation:
- The identity property is used for nominal scales where the data is categorized without any quantitative value. For example, classifying students into different classes (Class A, Class B, etc.) based on certain criteria.
- Absolute zero, however, is a property of ratio scales where zero indicates the absence of the quantity being measured. Time is an example of a ratio scale since it has a meaningful zero point (e.g., zero seconds means the absence of time).
- Conclusion:
- Thus, the correct relationship is that 'Class' corresponds to the 'Identity' property of measurement, and 'Time' corresponds to the 'Absolute Zero' property of measurement.
Psychology - UGC Question 3:
Which structure of the Limbic system is mostly responsible for controlling the emotional behaviour of fear?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Psychology - UGC Question 3 Detailed Solution
The correct option is 'Amygdala'.
Key Points
- The amygdala is primarily involved in the processing of emotions such as fear and pleasure.
- This statement is true.
- The amygdala is a critical component of the limbic system, which is responsible for emotional responses.
- It plays a key role in the formation and storage of memories associated with emotional events.
- The hippocampus is mainly associated with memory formation and spatial navigation.
- This statement is true.
- The hippocampus is another important structure within the limbic system but is not primarily responsible for fear.
- It helps in converting short-term memory into long-term memory and navigating through space.
- While both statements (A) and (R) are true, Statement (R) is not the correct explanation of Statement (A).
- The reason provided in Statement (R) discusses the hippocampus's role in memory and spatial navigation, which are important functions of the limbic system.
- However, it does not directly explain or support the specific function of the amygdala in controlling the emotional behavior of fear.
- The two statements provide related information but do not establish a cause-and-effect relationship.
Psychology - UGC Question 4:
Which of the following nerves carry the sensory messages from skin, eyes and ears to Central Nervous System?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Psychology - UGC Question 4 Detailed Solution
The correct option is ' Afferent'.
Key Points
- Afferent nerves, also known as sensory nerves, are responsible for transmitting sensory information from the body's peripheral regions to the central nervous system (CNS).
- These nerves collect data from sensory receptors located in the skin, eyes, ears, and other sensory organs.
- The sensory information includes various stimuli such as touch, temperature, pain, light, and sound.
- Once the sensory information is collected, afferent nerves convey these signals to the CNS, where they are processed and interpreted.
- This allows the brain to respond appropriately to different sensory inputs, enabling functions such as vision, hearing, and tactile sensation.
Additional Information
- Efferent nerves, in contrast, carry motor commands from the CNS to the muscles and glands, facilitating actions and responses.
- Cranial nerves are a specific subset of nerves that emerge directly from the brain, and they can be either sensory, motor, or mixed.
- Peripheral nerves encompass both sensory (afferent) and motor (efferent) nerves that are part of the peripheral nervous system.
Psychology - UGC Question 5:
Which of the following is a disease not related to Cardiovascular system?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Psychology - UGC Question 5 Detailed Solution
The correct answer is 'Crohn's Disease'
Key Points
- Crohn's Disease:
- Crohn's Disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) that primarily affects the gastrointestinal (GI) tract.
- It causes inflammation of the digestive tract, which can lead to abdominal pain, severe diarrhea, fatigue, weight loss, and malnutrition.
- This disease is not related to the cardiovascular system.
- Atherosclerosis:
- Atherosclerosis is a cardiovascular disease characterized by the buildup of fats, cholesterol, and other substances in and on the artery walls (plaques), which can restrict blood flow.
- This condition can lead to serious problems, including heart attack, stroke, and other cardiovascular diseases.
- Angina Pectoris:
- Angina Pectoris is a symptom of coronary artery disease, a cardiovascular condition.
- It is characterized by chest pain or discomfort due to reduced blood flow to the heart muscle.
- It is often triggered by physical activity or stress and is a sign of an underlying heart problem.
- Aneurysm:
- An Aneurysm is an abnormal bulge or ballooning in the wall of a blood vessel, typically an artery, and is related to the cardiovascular system.
- If an aneurysm ruptures, it can cause life-threatening internal bleeding.
- Aneurysms can occur in any artery, but the most common locations are the aorta and the arteries of the brain.
Additional Information
- Cardiovascular System:
- The cardiovascular system, also known as the circulatory system, comprises the heart and blood vessels (arteries, veins, and capillaries).
- Its primary function is to circulate blood throughout the body, delivering oxygen and nutrients to tissues and removing waste products.
- Common cardiovascular diseases include coronary artery disease, heart attack, stroke, and hypertension.
Psychology - UGC Question 6:
Which are the two basic features of Schema?
(a) Influencing memory
(b) Promoting forgetting
(c) Resisting change
(d) Promoting change
Choose the correct option:
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Psychology - UGC Question 6 Detailed Solution
Schema
- The use of schemas as a basic concept was first used by a British psychologist named Frederic Bartlett as part of his learning theory.
- Bartlett's theory suggested that our understanding of the world is formed by a network of abstract mental structures.
- A schema is an organized unit of knowledge for a subject or event. It is based on past experience and is accessed to guide current understanding or action.
- Schemas are dynamic they develop and change based on new information and experiences and thereby support the notion of plasticity in development.
Two basic features of Schema
Influencing memory
- Schemas also affect the way in which memories are encoded and retrieved, supporting the theory that our memories are reconstructive.
- Using schemas, we are able to develop an understanding of the objects around us based on characteristics that we have encountered in similar objects in the past.
- schemas are abstract mental representations that influence perceptual and memory processes. therefore, it will not Promote forgetting
Resisting change
- Resistance to change is the unwillingness to adapt to altered circumstances.
- It can be covert or overt, organized, or individual.
- Jean Piaget used the term “schema” to describe the mental framework we construct to help us organize and understand information.
- Schemas are the building blocks of knowledge. When we face new information, we have to either fit it in our existing schema or adjust the schema to fit the new information. which means it will resist change by modifying or adjusting the new information therefore, it will not promote change
Psychology - UGC Question 7:
Arrange the following theories of leadership in the correct order of their evolution:
A. Contingency theory
B. Behavioral theory
C. Great men theory
D. Trait theory
E. Transformational leadership theory
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Psychology - UGC Question 7 Detailed Solution
The correct answer is 'C, D, B, A, E'
Key Points
- Great Men Theory (1840s):
- This is one of the earliest theories of leadership, suggesting that great leaders are born with inherent traits and qualities that make them effective.
- It emphasizes the innate characteristics and qualities of historical figures who have been successful leaders.
- In 1860, Herbert Spencer, an English philosopher disputed the great man theory by affirming that these heroes are simply the product of their times and their actions the results of social conditions.
- Trait Theory (1930s):
- Developed after the Great Men Theory, it focuses on identifying specific traits and characteristics that are common among successful leaders.
- It suggests that certain qualities, such as intelligence, assertiveness, and self-confidence, can predict leadership effectiveness.
- There were many shortfalls with the trait leadership theory. However, from a psychology of personalities approach, Gordon Allport's studies are among the first ones and have brought, for the study of leadership, the behavioural approach.
- In the 1930s the field of Psychometrics was in its early years. Personality traits measurement weren't reliable across studies. Study samples were of low level managers Explanations weren't offered as to the relation between each characteristic and its impact on leadership The context of the leader wasn't considered.
- Behavioral Theory(1940-1950s):
- In reaction to the trait leadership theory, the behavioural theories are offering a new perspective, one that focuses on the behaviours of the leaders as opposed to their mental, physical or social characteristics. Thus, with the evolutions in psychometrics, notably the factor analysis, researchers were able to measure the cause an effects relationship of specific human behaviours from leaders. From this point forward anyone with the right conditioning could have access to the once before elite club of naturally gifted leaders. In other words, leaders are made not born.
- Contingency Theory (1960s):
- This theory emerged as a response to the limitations of the Behavioral Theory, emphasizing that there is no one best way to lead.
- It suggests that the effectiveness of a leadership style is contingent upon various situational factors, including the leader’s style, the followers, and the context.
- Transformational Leadership Theory (1970s):
- This is one of the more recent theories, focusing on how leaders can inspire and motivate followers to achieve extraordinary outcomes and, in the process, develop their own leadership capacity.
- It emphasizes the role of visionary leaders who can bring about significant change by aligning the goals of followers with those of the organization.
Additional Information
- Option 1:
- This option incorrectly places Contingency Theory before the earlier theories like Great Men and Trait Theories.
- Option 3:
- This option incorrectly places Trait Theory after Contingency Theory, which is out of the correct evolutionary sequence.
- Option 4:
- This option incorrectly sequences Behavioral Theory before Great Men and Trait Theories, which is not accurate according to their historical development.
Psychology - UGC Question 8:
Some people do not want to spend time to consider issues important/relevant to them, which one of the followings are true for this condition?
A. High level of elaboration
B. Logic-driven
C. Cognitive misers
D. Short-lived attitude change
E. Peripheral route
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Psychology - UGC Question 8 Detailed Solution
The correct answer is 'C, D, and E'
Key Points
- The elaboration likelihood model:
- first devised by Richard E. Petty and John T. Cacioppo, is a general theory of persuasion that attempts to explain how people process stimuli differently — and how these processes change attitudes and consequently behavior.
- According to the elaboration likelihood model, people can have either high or low levels of elaboration — the extent to which they are willing and able to scrutinize an argument.
- The question talks about peripheral route to processing.
- Cognitive misers:
- Cognitive misers refer to individuals who prefer to expend minimal cognitive effort when making decisions or considering issues.
- They tend to rely on heuristics and prefer peripheral route to information processing rather than engaging in thorough and detailed information processing.
- Peripheral route:
- The peripheral route to persuasion involves superficial processing of information, often using cues rather than detailed analysis. While cognitive misers may use the peripheral route, this concept specifically pertains to how attitudes are changed rather than why people avoid deep processing.
- Short-lived attitude change
- With the peripheral route, the focus is more on the context than on the message itself. The audience is not required to think deeply about the meaning of the message. This creates a short-lived attitude change.
Additional Information
- High level of elaboration:
- High level of elaboration involves extensive and detailed processing of information. Individuals with high elaboration will deeply consider various aspects of an issue, which contrasts with the behavior of cognitive misers.
- Logic-driven:
- Logic-driven decision-making involves using logical reasoning and systematic analysis to evaluate information. The central route to persuasion characterizes with the logic and high processing of information not the peripheral route.
Psychology - UGC Question 9:
Which of the following stages in Tuckman's model is characterized by group members understanding each other's strengths and weaknesses and starting to form relationships?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Psychology - UGC Question 9 Detailed Solution
The correct answer is 'Norming'
Key Points
- Norming:
- In the Norming stage, group members start to resolve their differences, appreciate each other's strengths, and respect the leader's authority.
- This stage is characterized by the development of relationships and a sense of cohesion within the group.
- Members begin to work more collaboratively, and roles and responsibilities become clearer, leading to increased trust and cooperation.
Additional Information
- Forming:
- This is the initial stage where group members come together and start to get to know each other.
- The main focus is on orientation and establishing the ground rules, but members are still quite independent and not yet integrated into a cohesive team.
- Storming:
- The Storming stage is marked by conflict and competition as individual personalities and work styles clash.
- This stage is critical for growth but can be challenging as members push against boundaries and struggle for positions and control.
- Performing:
- In the Performing stage, the team is fully functional and works towards achieving its goals efficiently and effectively.
- Members are motivated, competent, and able to handle decision-making without supervision, focusing on task completion and performance improvement.
Psychology - UGC Question 10:
According to Fritz Heider's Balance Theory, an unbalanced state occurs when:
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Psychology - UGC Question 10 Detailed Solution
The correct answer is 'The product of the relationships in a triad is negative.'
Key Points
- Fritz Heider's Balance Theory:
- Fritz Heider's Balance Theory is a psychological theory that examines the consistency in relationships among triads of individuals or objects.
- The theory posits that people strive for balance in their relationships and that an unbalanced state generates psychological discomfort, prompting individuals to take action to restore balance.
- In the context of triads, balance is achieved when the product of the signs of the relationships among three entities is positive.
- Unbalanced State:
- An unbalanced state occurs when the product of the relationships in a triad is negative.
- This means that if the multiplication of the signs of the three relationships results in a negative value, the triad is considered unbalanced.
- For example, if two relationships are positive and one is negative, or if one relationship is positive and two are negative, the overall product will be negative, indicating an unbalanced state.
Additional Information
- Other Options:
- All three relationships in the triad are positive:
- This scenario represents a balanced state, not an unbalanced one, as the product of the relationships is positive.
- Two out of three relationships in a triad are positive:
- If two relationships are positive and one is negative, the product of the relationships will be negative, leading to an unbalanced state.
- All relationships in the triad are negative:
- When all three relationships are negative, the product of the relationships is negative, indicating an unbalanced state.
- All three relationships in the triad are positive: