Polity MCQ Quiz - Objective Question with Answer for Polity - Download Free PDF

The correct answer is 2016.

Key Points

• The Right of Persons with Disabilities Act was passed in the year 2016.
• This act replaced the earlier Persons with Disabilities (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights, and Full Participation) Act, 1995.
• The act aims to give effect to the United Nations Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities, which India ratified in 2007.
• The act covers a range of rights and entitlements for persons with disabilities, including education, employment, and social security.

Additional Information

• Persons with Disabilities (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights, and Full Participation) Act, 1995
  • This was the first comprehensive law in India concerning the rights of persons with disabilities.
  • It provided for equal opportunities and full participation of persons with disabilities in society.
  • The act focused on prevention and early detection of disabilities, education, employment, and non-discrimination.
• United Nations Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (UNCRPD)
  • The UNCRPD is an international human rights treaty aimed at protecting the rights and dignity of persons with disabilities.
  • Adopted on 13 December 2006 and entered into force on 3 May 2008.
  • India signed the convention on 30 March 2007 and ratified it on 1 October 2007.
  • The convention requires countries to promote, protect, and ensure the full and equal enjoyment of all human rights by persons with disabilities.
• Right of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016
  • This act was enacted to comply with the UNCRPD and to address the gaps in the 1995 Act.
  • It recognizes 21 types of disabilities, compared to 7 in the 1995 Act.
  • The act mandates that persons with disabilities have the right to equality, life with dignity, and respect for their integrity.
  • It includes provisions for reservation in education and employment, social security, and accessibility.

The correct answer is The Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897.

Key Points

• The Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897 was enacted to provide for better prevention of the spread of dangerous epidemic diseases.
• The Act gives special powers to state and central governments to take measures necessary to prevent the outbreak or spread of an epidemic.
• The Epidemic Diseases (Amendment) Ordinance, 2020 was introduced to include protections for healthcare personnel combatting epidemic diseases.
• The Ordinance also provides for stricter penalties for acts of violence against healthcare service personnel and damage to property during epidemics.

Additional Information

• Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897
  • The Act was passed by the British colonial government in India in 1897 in response to the bubonic plague outbreak in Mumbai (then Bombay).
  • The Act allows the central and state governments to take special measures and prescribe regulations to prevent the spread of epidemic diseases.
  • The Act also provides the legal framework for the implementation of containment measures such as quarantine, isolation, and restrictions on the movement of people.
  • The Act has been invoked several times in India, including during the outbreaks of H1N1 influenza (swine flu), dengue, and COVID-19.
• The Epidemic Diseases (Amendment) Ordinance, 2020
  • The Ordinance was promulgated by the President of India on April 22, 2020, in response to the COVID-19 pandemic.
  • It amends the Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897 to include protections for healthcare service personnel combating epidemic diseases.
  • The Ordinance defines "healthcare service personnel" to include healthcare professionals, nurses, paramedical workers, and any other person empowered under the Act to take measures to prevent the outbreak or spread of an epidemic disease.
  • It provides for imprisonment and fines for acts of violence against healthcare service personnel and damage to property during epidemics.
• Other Important Terminologies
  • Quarantine: A restriction on the movement of people and goods intended to prevent the spread of disease or pests.
  • Isolation: The separation of people who are infected with a contagious disease from those who are healthy to prevent the spread of the disease.
  • Containment Measures: Strategies and actions taken to prevent the spread of a disease within a community, including quarantine, isolation, and restrictions on movement.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

Pt Kunji Lal Dubey

• He remained in the post of Speaker from 1 Nov 1956 to 7 March 1967.
• Pt. Kunjilal Dubey worked as the first speaker of the Madhya Pradesh Legislative Assembly in 1956, as the Finance Minister of the State in 1967, and was the president of the Inter-University Board of India. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
• He was the earliest vice chancellor of Rani Durgavati University and the principal of Nagpur University. 
• Kunji Lal Dubey (18 March 1896 – 2 June 1970) was an Indian independence reformer, lawyer, educationist, and legislator from Madhya Pradesh.
• In 1946 and 1952 he was two-times elected as a member of the Madhya Pradesh Legislative Assembly. 

Additional Information

Bhagwantrao Annabhau Mandloi (15 December 1892 - 3 November 1977)

• He was an Indian National Congress politician was a former Chief Minister of Madhya Pradesh.
• He was born in Khandwa. He was a recipient of the civilian honour of Padma Bhushan. 
• He was twice the chief minister of the state from 1 January 1957 to 30 January 1957 and 12 March 1962 to 29 September 1963.

Pandit Dwarka Prasad Mishra

• He was the two-time Chief Minister of Madhya Pradesh, also known as the ‘Ironman’ of Madhya Pradesh, who founded Hindi journalism in the state.

Shankar Dayal Sharma (19 August 1918 – 26 December 1999)

• He was an Indian lawyer and politician from the state of Madhya Pradesh who served as the ninth president of India, from 1992 to 1997.

The correct answer is Governor.

Key Points

• Governor
  • The Governor of the state has the authority to decide the disqualification of members of the State Legislative Assembly for matters other than those in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
  • This power is derived from the Representation of the People Act, 1951, which outlines the grounds for disqualification, such as holding an office of profit, unsound mind, or being an undischarged insolvent.
  • The Governor acts on the advice of the Election Commission of India in such matters.
  • Disqualification under the Tenth Schedule (anti-defection law) is handled by the Speaker or Chairman of the House, not the Governor.
  • The Governor's role in disqualification ensures impartiality and adherence to constitutional provisions.

Additional Information

• Chief Minister
  • The Chief Minister does not have the authority to decide the disqualification of members of the State Legislative Assembly.
  • The Chief Minister is the head of the state government and is responsible for executive decisions and governance.
  • Disqualification matters are judicial or quasi-judicial in nature and fall outside the Chief Minister's jurisdiction.
  • The Chief Minister can influence the political environment but cannot directly disqualify legislators.
  • Such decisions are reserved for constitutional authorities like the Governor or the Election Commission.
• High Court
  • The High Court does not directly decide the disqualification of members of the State Legislative Assembly.
  • However, the High Court can intervene if there is a legal challenge to the disqualification process or decision.
  • Courts ensure that disqualification proceedings are conducted in accordance with the law and constitutional provisions.
  • The High Court can review the decisions of the Governor or Election Commission if they are challenged.
  • Judicial review ensures fairness and adherence to the rule of law in disqualification cases.
• State Election Commission
  • The State Election Commission is responsible for conducting local body elections and does not decide the disqualification of State Legislative Assembly members.
  • Its primary role is to oversee elections for municipalities, panchayats, and other local governance bodies.
  • Disqualification of state legislators falls under the purview of the Election Commission of India and the Governor.
  • The State Election Commission operates independently but has no authority over state legislative matters.
  • Its functions are limited to ensuring free and fair elections at the local level.

The correct answer is 2003.

Key Points

• The Electricity Act 2003:
  • It is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted to transform the power sector in India.
  • It is an act to consolidate the laws relating to the generation, transmission, distribution, trading and use of electricity and generally for taking measures conducive to the development of the electricity industry, promoting competition therein, protecting the interest of consumers and supply of electricity to all areas, rationalization of electricity tariff, ensuring transparent policies regarding subsidies, promotion of efficient and environmentally benign policies.
  • This act was amended in 2007 and was introduced in Lok Sabha on August 8, 2022.

Important Points 

• Energy Conservation Act 2001
  • The Act is to provide for the efficient use of energy and its conservation and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
  • It extends to the whole of India except the state of Jammu and Kashmir.

The correct answer is Right to Vote.

Key Points

• The right to vote in India is guaranteed by the Constitution and the Representation of the People Act, 1951, subject to certain limitations.
• Every citizen over the age of 18 has the right to vote under Article 326 of the Constitution.
• The Right to vote in India is a Constitutional Right and not a Fundamental Right.​

Additional Information

• There are six fundamental rights recognized by the Indian constitution:
  • Right to equality (Articles. 14-18)
  • Right to freedom (Articles. 19-22) The right to freedom includes freedom of speech and expression
  • Right against exploitation (Articles. 23-24)
  • Right to freedom of religion (Articles. 25-28)
  • Cultural and Educational Rights (Articles. 29-30), and
  • Right to constitutional remedies (Articles. 32-35)

The correct answer is a Money bill.

Key Points

• The Parliament's ability to control how public funds are used is a crucial role.
• Money Bills provide the government access to public funds.
• Only on the President's suggestion may a Money Bill be tabled in the Lok Sabha.
• The Constitution's Article 110 addresses money bills. Rajya Parliament cannot hear the Money Bill first.
• If a bill only has measures pertaining to money, it is referred to
  • taxation
  • borrowing of money by the government
  • expenditure from or receipt to the Consolidated Fund of India.

Additional Information

•  How money bill is passed -
  • Only on the President's advice may a Money Bill be tabled in the Lok Sabha.
  • The Lok Sabha must approve it with a simple majority of all members who are present and voting.
  • The Rajya Sabha may then send it for recommendations, which the Lok Sabha may accept or reject as it sees fit. If such suggestions are not made within 14 days, Parliament will be assumed to have approved them.

The correct answer is August 5, 2022.Key Points

• The New Delhi International Arbitration Centre (Amendment) Bill, 2022 was introduced in Lok Sabha on August 5, 2022.
• The Bill amends the New Delhi International Arbitration Centre Act, 2019. 
• The Act provides for setting up the New Delhi International Arbitration Centre and designates it as an institute of national importance. 
• The New Delhi International Arbitration Centre replaced the International Centre for Alternative Dispute Resolution. 

Additional Information

• Government of India passed the New Delhi International Arbitration Centre Act 2019.
• The New Delhi International Arbitration Centre Bill, 2019 was introduced in Lok Sabha by the Minister of Law and Justice, Mr. Ravi Shankar Prasad on July 3, 2019.
• It establishes an autonomous and independent institution for better management of arbitration in India.  
• The establishment of the NDIAC is to conduct an arbitration, mediation, and conciliation proceedings.

The correct answer is persons with disabilities.  

Key Points

•  State of Kerala Vs Leesamma Joseph:-
  • The Supreme Court of India in its judgment on 28 June 2021 in the case of "State of Kerala vs Leesamma Joseph" affirmed that persons with disabilities have a right to reservation in promotion under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India, 1950.
  • While examining the constitutionality of Section 33 of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, the Court noted that 'equality of opportunity' in matters of public employment includes provision of certain reservations in favour of persons with disabilities.
  • Furthermore, it held that Article 16(4) of the Constitution, empowering the State to make provisions for reservation in matters of promotion in favour of any backward class of citizens, also includes persons with disabilities within its scope, regardless of the nature of their establishments, whether they belong to the public sector or the private sector.

Additional Information

• Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 (RPDA):
  • This is the principal legislation that protects the rights of individuals with disabilities in India.
  • It replaces and strengthens the Persons with Disabilities Act, 1995.
  • The RPDA complies with the United Nations Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities, to which India is a signatory.
  • The Act expands the list of recognized disabilities from 7 to 21, and mandates the central and state governments to take measures to ensure that persons with disabilities fully enjoy all human rights and fundamental freedoms.

The correct answer is Only II.

Key Points

Family welfare Programme

• Family welfare includes not only the planning of birth but the welfare of the whole family by means of total family health care.
• The family welfare programme has high priority in India because its success depends upon the quality of life of all citizens.
• FWP mainly includes Family planning information, counselling and services to women for healthy reproduction. Hence, statement 1 is NOT correct.
• Education about safe delivery and post-delivery of the mother and the baby and the treatment of women before pregnancy.
• Health care for infants’ immunization against preventable diseases.
• The Department of HFW is responsible for implementing the National Family Welfare Programme by, inter-alia, encouraging the utilisation of contraceptives and their distribution to the States/UTs.

National Population Policy (NPP)

• In the year 2000, the National Population Policy (NPP) provided the framework for a holistic planned effort.
• It provides a policy framework for imparting free and compulsory school education up to 14 years of age. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• It also focuses on reducing the infant mortality rate to below 30 per 1000 live births.

The correct answer is 150.Key Points

• The Competition (Amendment) Bill, 2022 proposes to reduce the timeline for the CCI to pass an order on transactions from 210 days to 150 days.
• It seeks to amend the Competition Act, 2002.
• The Act prohibits any person or enterprise from entering into a combination which may cause adverse effect on competition.
• Combinations mean mergers, acquisitions, or amalgamation of enterprises.
• The Act defines control as control over the affairs or management by one or more enterprises over another enterprise or group.
• The Act specifies that any combination shall not come into effect until the CCI has passed an order or 210 days have passed from the day when an application for approval was filed.
• CCI may initiate proceedings against enterprises on grounds of entering into anti-competitive agreements and abuse of dominant position.
• The Act empowers the central government to appoint a Director General to CCI.
• It states required qualification of members of CCI.
• The Bill changes the nature of punishment for certain offences from imposition of fine to penalty.

Additional Information

• Competition Commission of India
  • ​The objectives of the Act are sought to be achieved through the Competition Commission of India, which has been established by the Central Government with effect from 14th October 2003.
  • The Competition Commission of India's goal is to create and sustain fair competition in the economy that will provide a ‘level playing field’ to the producers and make the markets work for the welfare of the consumers.
  • CCI consists of a Chairperson and 6 Members appointed by the Central Government. 
  • It is the duty of the Commission to eliminate practices having an adverse effect on competition, promote and sustain competition, protect the interests of consumers and ensure freedom of trade in the markets of India. Hence, option 4 is correct.
  • The Commission is also required to give an opinion on competition issues on a reference received from a statutory authority established under any law and to undertake competition advocacy, create public awareness and impart training on competition issues.

The correct answer is Entry of women to Sabarimala.

Key Points

• Entry of women to Sabarimala:-
  • The Supreme Court on 28 September 2018 allowed entry of women of all ages into the Ayyappa temple at Sabarimala in Kerala.
  • The SC said banning entry of women to Kerala's Sabarimala temple is gender discrimination and the practice violates rights of Hindu women.
  • Justice Indu Malhotra penned a dissenting opinion Entry of women to Sabarimala. 
  • The court gave its verdict on a clutch of pleas challenging the ban on entry of women at Sabarimala in Kerala.

Additional Information

•  Doctrine of Basic Structure:-
  • It is a judicial principle developed by the Supreme Court of India in 1973.
  • This principle emerged in the Keshavananda Bharati judgment.
  • The Parliament of India is vested with the power of amending the Constitution (Article 368). But, the doctrine of basic structure restricts the powers of the Parliament.
  • According to this, the Supreme Court has the power to declare any law void if it is found to be unconstitutional.
  • Any amendment that tries to change the basic structure of the constitution is considered unconstitutional, though the term ';basic structure' is not mentioned in the constitution and has evolved over time.
  • This principle thus helps to protect and preserve the spirit of the constitution document.
• Preamble' of the Indian Constitution -
  • The Preamble to a Constitution embodies the fundamental values and the philosophy, on which the Constitution is based, and the aims and objectives, which the founding fathers of the Constitution enjoined the polity to strive to achieve.
  • The importance and utility of the Preamble have been pointed out in several decisions of the Supreme Court of India.

The correct answer is August.Key Points

• The Central Universities (Amendment) Bill, 2022 was passed in Lok Sabha in August.
• The Central Universities (Amendment) Bill, 2022 was introduced in Lok Sabha on August 1, 2022.   
• The Bill amends the Central Universities Act, 2009, which provides for establishing central universities in various states. 

Additional Information

• Key features of the Bill include:
• Gati Shakti Vishwavidyalaya: 
  • The Bill seeks to convert the National Rail and Transportation Institute, Vadodara (a deemed university) to the Gati Shakti Vishwavidyalaya, which will be a central university.  
• Scope of education:
  • The Bill provides that Gati Shakti Vishwavidyalaya will take measures to provide quality teaching, research, and skill development in disciplines related to transportation, technology, and management. 
• Appointment of a new Vice-Chancellor (VC):
  • The existing VC of the National Rail and Transportation Institute will hold office for: (i) six months from when the Act is notified, or (ii) until a new VC for the Gati Shakti Vishwavidyalaya is appointed, whichever is earlier. 

The correct answer is Newsprint Control Order, 2004.

Key Points

• The 1955 Essential Commodities Act covered newsprint. The Newsprint Control Order of 1962 controlled its production and trade.
• The Newsprint Control Order was revoked in 2004 and Newsprint was removed from the list of essential goods.
• The Newsprint Control Order 2004 was then published in its place. This enables the mills that produce newspapers to register with Schedule I. Subject to the actual user condition, mills registered under the schedule are exempt from excise duty. 

Additional Information

• Newsprint 
  • ​Newspapers, other periodicals, and advertising materials are most frequently printed on newsprint, a cheap, non-archival paper made primarily of wood pulp.
  • It was created in 1844 by Charles Fenerty in Nova Scotia, Canada, and often has an off-white cast.
  • It is made to be used in printing presses that use large webs of paper rather than single sheets of paper, such as web offset, letterpress, and flexographic.
  • Publishers and printers prefer newsprint because it is relatively inexpensive (in comparison to paper grades used for glossy magazines and sales brochures), sturdy (enough to run through contemporary high-speed web printing presses), and can accept four-color printing at qualities suitable for standard newspapers.