Let 𝐢[0,1] denote the set of all real valued continuous functions defined on [0,1] and ‖𝑓‖ = sup{|𝑓(π‘₯)| ∢ π‘₯ ∈ [0,1]} for all 𝑓 ∈ 𝐢[0,1]. Let

𝑋 = { 𝑓 ∈ 𝐢[0,1] ∢ 𝑓(0) = 𝑓(1) = 0 }.

Define 𝐹 ∢ (𝐢[0,1], β€–⋅β€–) → ℝ by 𝐹(𝑓) = \(\rm \int_0^1f(t)dt\) for all 𝑓 ∈ 𝐢[0,1].

Denote 𝑆𝑋 = {𝑓 ∈ 𝑋 ∢ ‖𝑓‖ = 1}.

Then the set {𝑓 ∈ 𝑋 ∢ 𝐹(𝑓) = ‖𝐹‖} ∩ 𝑆𝑋 has 

  1. NO element
  2. exactly one element
  3. exactly two elements
  4. an infinite number of elements

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 1 : NO element

Detailed Solution

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Given -

Let 𝐢[0,1] denote the set of all real valued continuous functions defined on [0,1] and β€–𝑓‖ = sup{|𝑓(π‘₯)| ∢ π‘₯ ∈ [0,1]} for all 𝑓 ∈ 𝐢[0,1].

Let 𝑋 = { 𝑓 ∈ 𝐢[0,1] ∢ 𝑓(0) = 𝑓(1) = 0 }.

Define 𝐹 ∢ (𝐢[0,1],  β€–𝑓‖) → ℝ by 𝐹(𝑓) = \(\rm \int_0^1f(t)dt\)  for all 𝑓 ∈ 𝐢[0,1].

Denote 𝑆X = {𝑓 ∈ 𝑋 ∢  β€–𝑓‖ = 1}.

Explanation -

The aim is to find the functions that satisfy the condition {𝑓 ∈ 𝑋 : 𝐹(𝑓) = ‖𝐹‖}.

Given ‖𝐹‖ is the supremum of |𝐹(𝑓)| over all 𝑓 ∈ 𝐢[0,1] with ‖𝑓‖ ≤ 1.

And also that the value of an integral is generally understood to be a "sum" of the values of 𝑓 over the interval [0,1].

Since 𝑓(0) = 𝑓(1) = 0, any such ‖𝑓‖ ≤ 1 that has a chance of maximizing |𝐹(𝑓)| would generally need to have positive and negative values on [0,1].

Otherwise, the integral could likely be increased by "stretching" ‖𝑓‖ .

But this will contradict 𝑆X = {𝑓 ∈ 𝑋 : ‖𝑓‖∞ = 1}.

A function in 𝑋 that meets the norm condition (i.e., is in 𝑆X) would have |𝑓(𝑑)| ≤ 1 for each 𝑑 ∈ [0,1].

Moreover, no such function can be "stretched" to have a larger value of |𝐹(𝑓)|.

Hence, it would seem that no function in 𝑆X can satisfy ‖𝐹‖.

Therefore, it seems no element in SX can satisfy 𝐹(𝑓) = ‖𝐹‖.

Therefore, the set {𝑓 ∈ 𝑋 ∢ 𝐹(𝑓) = ‖𝐹‖} ∩ 𝑆X contains no elements.

Hence option (1) is correct.

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