Consider the function f defined by f(z) = \(\rm\frac{1}{1βˆ’zβˆ’z^2}\) for z ∈ β„‚ such that 1 − z − z2 ≠ 0. Which of the following statements is true?

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  1. f is an entire function.
  2. f has a simple pole at z = 0.
  3. f has a Taylor series expansion f(z) = \(\rm\displaystyle\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\) anzn, where coefficients an are recursively defined as follows: a0 = 1, a1 = 0 and an+2 = an + an+1 for n ≥ 0.
  4. f has a Taylor series expansion f(z) = \(\rm\displaystyle\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\) anzn, where coefficients an are recursively defined as follows: a= 1, a= 1 and an+2 = a+ an+1 for n ≥ 0.

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Option 4 : f has a Taylor series expansion f(z) = \(\rm\displaystyle\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\) anzn, where coefficients an are recursively defined as follows: a= 1, a= 1 and an+2 = a+ an+1 for n ≥ 0.
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Concept:

An entire function is a complex-valued function that is a complex differential in a neighborhood of each point in a domain in a complex coordinate space

Explanation:

f(z) = \(\rm\frac{1}{1βˆ’zβˆ’z^2}\) for z ∈ β„‚ 

singularities of f(z) is given by

1 - z - z2 = 0 ⇒ z = \({-1 \pm \sqrt{1+4} \over 2}\) = \({-1 \pm \sqrt{5} \over 2}\)

So f(z) has a pole at z = \({-1 \pm \sqrt{5} \over 2}\) 

So options (1) and (2) both false

f has a Taylor series expansion so

f(z) = \(\rm\displaystyle\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\) anzn = f(0) + \(\frac{f'(0)}{1!}\)z + .... 

So a= f(0) = 1

and a\(\frac{f'(0)}{1!}\)

Now, f'(z) = -\(\rm\frac{1}{(1βˆ’zβˆ’z^2)^2}\)(-1 - 2z)

So f'(0) = 1

So option (4) is correct and (3) false

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